"Slaves" or "Bodies"?
We know from Revelation chapters seventeen and eighteen that MYSTERY BABYLON THE GREAT will be a great economic power in the last days. When MYSTERY BABYLON is destroyed, the merchants of the earth are going to weep and mourn "...for no man buyeth their merchandise any more."
Revelation chapter eighteen verses twelve and thirteen contain a list of items that will be sold by merchants within the Babylonian economic system. Among the items of merchandise are the "slaves". The word "slaves" is translated from the Greek word "soma". This is the only place where it is translated into the English word "slaves".
According to "Strong's Concordance", the Greek word "soma" is used in the New Testament over one hundred twenty-five times, but it is translated as the English words "body" or "bodies". Why would a word that is translated as body or bodies be translated only once as slaves?
Perhaps, when the translators of the KJV encountered the word Greek "soma" in the context of being "merchandise" the only way they could imagine "bodies" being sold were as slaves. However, consider this:
U.S. firm makes millions selling dead body parts - RT
https://www.rt.com/business/408032-r...ad-body-parts/