Davy, you had posed this question to Off-Grid, I think, regarding Romans 7:4? I had typed a post in response but it got lost somehow, and couldn't retrieve it. Then I thought Off-Grid might be the one to answer, but, he's probably busy. It's a good question you raise.Originally Posted by Davy Crockett
I have had questions about Romans 7 for a long time. Verse 1 starts with Paul speaking to "those who know the Law", and confessing that it, the law, has rule over a man as long as he lives. Then, in verse 9, I think, he suggests that he, himself, had been "alive once, without the law". Not sure how to rectify those seeming contradictions. When had he been alive without the law if the law has jurisdiction over a man as long as he lives? Anyway, then the law came and sin was discovered?
So, back to the earlier portion, Paul says a woman is bound to her husband, by the law, as long as he lives, but if he dies, then, the law frees her from being bound to the dead husband and she is free to marry another. So, who dies? Not the law, but the husband. So, how does Paul want us identify in this analogy? He says, I think, that we have died to the law, verse 4. Like the dead husband? Or, like the wife, who has died to the law that had bound her to her living husband until he died? Certainly, in my view, it is not the Law that died? Correct? If you have any thoughts on this, I would love to read them. Thanks
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