Well we are, and I am asking you about the logic of the argument in your OP:
Ownership of the territory is another controversial issue. The Palestinians claim to be the ancient owners of Palestine. Yet we see that they only took possession of the land in the wake of the Turkish campaign through that region in about the tenth century A.D. The claim made by ancient Israel precedes this claim by about 2,300 years.So if I understand you correctly, you are arguing, in the above statement, the fact that ancient Israel had a prior claim to this land, ie claimed this land about 2,300 years earlier, that gives them the right to the land today.
Am I misunderstanding?
Actually, you are not misunderstanding all of the statement. The fact that ancient Israel had a claim to this land is not the end all. But, what does make all the difference is the fact that God gave the land to them forever.
Nothing that man says or does can supersede what God does.
Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin is death , but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.
The children of Israel were not the first, but they were there before Islam existed as a religion. So, it is germane, but as I said, not the most important reason. However, as someone posted on another thread, ownership of land throughout history has been dependent on a group of people being able to take the land from the current owners and to keep it. Sometimes, a mediator distributes land ownership to settle disputes as in the case of the UN after WWII giving Canaan to Israel.
Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin is death , but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.